I saw this comment on Quanta Magazine from mathematician and logician Jouko Väänänen, contributing to a survey of opinions about the implications of Gödel’s incompleteness theorems:
Incompleteness is an unwelcome but unavoidable fact of life in mathematics, like irrational and transcendental numbers in number theory, or Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle in physics.
There is a kind of “Gödel barrier” that formal language cannot circumvent: The stronger the expressive power of a logic (meaning the more things you can say in the logic), the weaker is its effectiveness (meaning our ability to prove statements true or false in the logic), and the stronger the effectiveness, the weaker is the expressive power.
For example, one of the simplest logical systems is propositional logic, which lets you combine statements with operations such as “and,” “or,” and “not.” It is very effective, but its expressive power is weak. On the other end of the spectrum, there’s second-order logic, which lets you make statements about objects, properties, sets, and relationships. It has tremendous expressive power and very weak effectiveness. It is as if the “product” of effectiveness and expressive power were constant, just as in Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle, which says that there is a limit to the precision with which certain “complementary” pairs of physical properties, such as position and momentum, can be simultaneously known; in other words, the more accurately one property is measured, the less accurately the other property can be known. In logic, in a remarkable analogy, effectiveness and expressiveness are such “complementary” properties. This is the real content of Gödel’s incompleteness theorems.
We stumble forward in mathematics without any certainty of consistency or completeness. This is just how things are.
It is shocking that mathematics, which is the basis of exact sciences, lacks a foundation that can be proved to be consistent and complete. Hilbert can be forgiven for thinking that this cannot be the case. However, it is the case, as certainly as the square root of two is irrational. Mathematics has a puzzling lump of incompleteness which can be pushed from place to place but it will never disappear.
— Jouko Väänänen in What Do Gödel’s Incompleteness Theorems Truly Mean?
I’m curious how this holds up, so I would appreciate some input from the TPF members who are into mathematics and logic.
My maths and logic days are gone and mostly forgotten, but my gut tells me something is off.
First, isn’t the idea that irrational numbers are unwelcome at least 2,000 years out of date? The Pythagoreans may have found them unwelcome, but they became just another useful part of mathematics soon afterwards.
Similarly, Gödel’s incompleteness theorems might be “shocking” only according to unreasonable expectations, in the same way that the lack of an absolutely certain foundation for science was a scandal to Descartes. To be fair, that might be Väänänen’s ultimate point, that what seems shocking need not be if we reject our need for absolutely certain foundations—but my guess is that’s not the point.
Also, he puts propositional logic on one end of a spectrum of expressive power, and ends up with this:
In logic, in a remarkable analogy, effectiveness and expressiveness are such “complementary” properties. This is the real content of Gödel’s incompleteness theorems.
But since the theorems don’t say anything about propositional logic, how is this anything more than vague and impressionistic? Aren’t there other results in mathematics that show there to be a trade-off between expressiveness and effectiveness?
We stumble forward in mathematics without any certainty of consistency or completeness.
This seems to associate a blind, disorganized practice with the results of the incompleteness theorems, as if the latter implied the former. That does not seem legitimate to me at all. Again, it’s possible he is just exaggerating as a kind of dramatizion for popular appeal, but if so it’s quite patronizing and annoying—not least, I’d imagine, to working mathematicians.
As for Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle, it might be ok as an analogy, but when he says “This is the real content of Gödel’s incompleteness theorems,” he seems to be wanting to apply this to the uncertainty principle too.
Am I onto something here or am I talking bollocks?
