Experience refers to perception only insofar as perception is the necessary occasion by which experience becomes possible.
Technically, experience refers to the termination of that systemic process, which determines how things appearing to the senses are to be understood…….
…….sorta just like that.
Only insofar as there could never be a reality beyond us, given, first, the kind of intelligence we possess, and second, that intelligence functions in accordance with the speculative metaphysics which prescribes it, all under tacit control of Mother Nature, who will surely bitchslap those speculations that forsake Her laws.
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There is no simple paragraph, that doesn’t ask more than it answers. That being said, and granting that all human thought is purely logical, we begin by thinking, oh I know what that is, full stop, done deal, or if not, then we say, I would understand what that is if (____), in which is thought those conceptions which fill out the first, these being inferences toward a judgement.
Reason, then, is that which says the inferences are valid or not, which affirms or denies a judgement, concluding with I do or I do not understand (whatever the object of my thinking was), ending in an experience which includes knowledge of the thing sensed, or an experience of a mere undeterminable something which doesn’t.
It is here that the claim reason has no function in experience receives its support, insofar as reason has for its object the understanding alone, to which, as a faculty itself, experience does not belong.
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The text spends 250-odd pages describing how this works, which boils down to, understanding does its job according to rules, reason supplies the principles which give the rules their authority.
Does it really work that way? Probably not, with respect to brains, but it was never supposed to be a proof concerning brains in the first place, proof being the negation of which is impossible. It is a speculative theory, constructed so as not to contradict Nature but still based on terms not found therein.
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Oh absolutely. With the glaring caveat that the certainty delivered is determined by the conditions under which it operates, so for these conditions this is certain, for those conditions that is certain, which is fine because that’s exactly how pure syllogistic logic works.
And as far as we’re concerned, it’s exactly how we learn things we didn’t know, or come to know the same things differently. All of which is just to say how we make mistakes in our judgements.
Anyway, thanks for asking, even if the answer isn’t that satisfying.