I think I’m on firm ground saying that logic provides the ‘laws of thought’. That’s pretty well textbook, isn’t it? One of the essays I encountered in the very early days of forums was Tyler Burge, Frege on Knowing the Third Realm from which:
Thought contents exist independently of thinking “in the same way”, (Frege) says, that a pencil exists independently of grasping it. (The artificial character of pencils plays no role in his understanding of the analogy, as other examples indicate.) He says that thought contents are true and bear their relations to one another (and presumably to what they are about) independently of anyone’s thinking these thought contents—“just as a planet, even before anyone saw it, was in interaction with other planets”
But on the other hand, they’re not really objective, in the sense that the distinctions that logic rely on are not inherent in the objective domain to which they are applied:
Just as the geographer does not create a sea when he draws boundary lines and says: the part of the ocean’s surface bounded by these lines I am going to call the Yellow Sea, so too the mathematician cannot really create anything by his defining. Nor can one by pure definition magically conjure into a thing a property that in fact it does not possess—save that of now being called by the name with which one has named it.
So that essay states throughout Frege’s confidence that ‘mathematical primitives’ (real numbers for instance) are ‘objective’. But is ‘objective’ the right word? They’re not ‘inherent in the object’. I would rather think that mathematics is more frequently utilised to determine what is more or less objective. Hence a contemporary of Frege’s, Bertrand Russell, makes this point about universals:
Consider such a proposition as ‘Edinburgh is north of London’. Here we have a relation between two places, and it seems plain that the relation subsists independently of our knowledge of it. When we come to know that Edinburgh is north of London, we come to know something which has to do only with Edinburgh and London: we do not cause the truth of the proposition by coming to know it, on the contrary we merely apprehend a fact which was there before we knew it. The part of the earth’s surface where Edinburgh stands would be north of the part where London stands, even if there were no human being to know about north and south, and even if there were no minds at all in the universe. This is, of course, denied by many philosophers, either for Berkeley’s reasons or for Kant’s. But we have already considered these reasons, and decided that they are inadequate. We may therefore now assume it to be true that nothing mental is presupposed in the fact that Edinburgh is north of London. But this fact involves the relation ‘north of’, which is a universal; and it would be impossible for the whole fact to involve nothing mental if the relation ‘north of’, which is a constituent part of the fact, did involve anything mental. Hence we must admit that the relation, like the terms it relates, is not dependent upon thought, but belongs to the independent world which thought apprehends but does not create ~ Bertrand Russell, Problems of Philosophy, The World of Universals.
‘Apprehended by thought but not created by it’ is key to this. Such distinctions, I say, underlie nearly all our conscious acts - we see the world ‘through’ them, so to speak, but they’re not part of the world. They’re embedded in the way the mind ‘constructs’ its world.