On Purpose (Reprise)

We ‘posit a biological realm’ in the abstract — by excluding or bracketing out precisely those characteristics and attributes of organisms which aren’t reducible to physical interactions, and then layering them back on top purportedly through the mechanism of natural selection. This is described as ‘neo-darwinian materialism’.

The origins of this go back to the separation of primary and secondary attributes in the early modern period, which in turn gives rise to the objective/subjective division, augmented by the Cartesian division of mind and matter. It’s important to see the role of abstraction in this — but it’s also hard to see, because it’s assumed. It becomes the perspective that the question is seen through. Here, I’m trying to focus on the perspective itself.

One consequences of this is to deny agency: in this worldview, organisms are reduced to objects that execute ‘programs’ in order to achieve objectives. They are no longer agents engaged in pursuit of aims.

Curiously, if ’ volition’ is understood to be ‘conscious volition’, then the only real volition that remains is that of human agents — although even that is called into doubt by determinism. The ascendancy of physicalism can’t be regarded as complete unless we too come to be regarded as machines or robots — something which finds its most pithy expression in eliminativism. This is why Hans Jonas argues that the ontology of the modern world is basically one of death: the universe comprises purposeless matter, in which life appears as an anomaly that has to be explained or accounted for.

The argument is that Aristotelian teleology was eliminated from phyics, because of the superseded idea of the ‘natural place’ that even stones would return to. But that the outright rejection of the very idea of telos, or goal-directed behaviour, is untenable in biology, because organisms are undeniably purpose-driven, on every level, even the cellular level. The argument is not that organisms exercise conscious volition but a rudimentary form of intentional behaviour, even if this is as simple as growing towards nutrients and away from hazards. Thus it was necessary to coin the neologism ‘teleonomy’ but really that was just to restore something that ought not to have been eliminated in the first place.

Look at these two passages by Talbott from the essay again:

The physicist wants laws that are as universal as possible, true of all situations and therefore unable to tell us much about any particular situation — laws, in other words, that are true regardless of meaning and context… Such abstraction shows up in the strong urge toward the mathematization of physical laws.

All of the appeals to ‘grounding’ and physics as ‘an alternative to chaos’ are borne of the wish to subsume everything under physical law, to make them truly universal. Really, it’s a fairly transparent effort to attribute to ‘the laws of physics’ what previously were regarded as ‘divine law’. We see the geneaology of this idea from early modern science, where Newton conceives the laws he discovers as ‘God’s handiwork’. Except that in the meanwhile, God has become a ghost in his own machine.

Talbott again:

In biology a changing context does not interfere with some causal truth we are trying to see; contextual transformation is itself the truth we are after… Every creature lives by virtue of the dynamic, pattern-shifting play of a governing context, which extends into an open-ended environment. The organism gives expression, at every level of its being, to the unbounded because of reason — the tapestry of meaning.

The physicalist construction relies on the rejection of the ‘because of reason’ in favour of antecedent physical causation. This is why the Aristotelian conception of final cause - the reason why something is done — can’t meaningfully be eliminated from biology.

Mine is not an ‘intelligent design’ argument in disguise. It’s simply pointing to a fact that should be obvious, which is that organic life is purposeful in its own terms.

Presumably you composed your reply for a purpose - to make a case, to point something out. If there is no case to be made, nothing to be pointed out, then indeed it would be pointless to say something.

testing one two three

Not sure I understand. I wrote you a long reply quoting Ziporyn and Nietzsche. Did you get this reply or only the 5-line quote from Ziporyn? My reply made the following critical points concerning your argument:
1.) the meaningless of a mechanical universe is an abstraction. Abstraction presupposes purpose, so physicalism relies on a notion of purpose.
2.) The notion of purpose is itself an abstraction.
3.) we can account for the self-organizing character of life without relying on mechanism or purpose.

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Sorry if I was facetious. I’m always phased by Nietszche. I’ll try again in response to your numbered points above.

I agree with what you opened with in your above response: ‘we can instead explain the appearance of such seeming purposefulness on the basis of continually self-transforming relations which are neither strictly random (pure randomness itself implies and depends on the notion of causal determinism) nor fixed by mechanical laws.’

But I would interpret that along the lines of abhidharma: that existence is indeed a flux of momentary experiences (dharmas) which are causally connected in that each gives rise to the next. This is not a mechanical but organic process, but it’s still inherently purposeful. Purpose is not ‘imposed’ on that or ‘read into’ it. Again it’s inherently purposeful on the level of all organic life, autonomic reactions, and so on.

What I’m trying to discern here is how the passage of time affects the self-identity of purpose for you. Purpose implies a way or direction of change, a channel or condition of possibility. How is the very directionality and sense of meaning of a purpose affected by the moments of the flux? How does a purpose continue to remain the ‘same’ purpose over time?

But can’t the same question be raised for identity itself? You know, ‘the Ship of Theseus’ argument? How does anything continue to remain the same over time? Without wanting to sound facile, I think the response is that an organism both is and is not the same over time. Which is the basis of process philosophy, going back to Heraclitus.

But I don’t see how that has bearing on the argument in the OP. Recall, that is about how the Aristotelian idea of telos was rejected as part of Galileo’s reformulation of physics. Then with the dominance of physicalism, purpose become internalised, along with all the other so-called ‘secondary attributes’ of colour perception, feeling, taste, and qualia, generally. So the argument is for a recognition of the fact that this perceived sense of ‘the purposeless nature of the Universe’ is very much a social construct — which you started off by endorsing. So I’m finding it hard to understand your point here.

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You make a distinction between real and apparent purposiveness, arguing that the Galilean formulation reduces Aristotelian purpose to bits of meaningless, mechanistic matter, making it only apparent purpose. You and I agree that physicalism after Galileo doesn’t do away with purposivity, but in fact relies on it in the form of subjectively constructed abstractions like identity and efficient cause. But this isnt telling physicalist philosophies anything they don’t already know.

The different varieties of physicalism ground themselves in some form of unifying metaphysical purpose, whether that takes the form of God or the irreducible, all-encompassing laws of nature. You’re embracing a third type of unifying metaphysical purpose, which you are locating intrinsic to life and mind rather than something external to them (God or Natural law).

My critique of purpose in all these guises is linked to the perspectives of phenomenology and enactivism. They would argue that all purpose is only apparent purpose. Like you, they want to unravel the abstractions of mechanistic physicalism, but they also want to unravel the abstraction
that is Aristotelian purpose. For them, what grounds the thinking of atomistic bits of dead matter is pragmatically structured norm-producing subject-object interaction. The temporal nature of this activity makes it contingent and relative. Its ’working parts’ are neither mechanistic nor purposefulness.

I would go and say, as I have said on this forum before, purpose is an epiphenomenon (I’ve been using that word a lot lately) upon the human mind and human society — humans make purpose, just as they make morals, meaning, values, etc.

Physical laws of nature have no purpose, they just are. We do not ultimately know and cannot know why they are — even if we do know, we only know what meta-laws are responsible them, and what meta-meta-laws are responsible for those, and so on, until we hit more basic physical laws we simply cannot fundamentally explain.

This is where Wayfarer and I would agree that your physicalist perspective is grounded in a certain metaphysics of purpose. Not a God-centered metaphysics but one which replaces the intrinsic and eternal truth of God with Nature. Natural laws are purposes. They legislate the
‘way that things really are’ without making explicit that the assumption that there is a way things ‘really are’ independent of us is already a social construct.

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You say that purpose is an epiphenomenon, which typically connotes that something has no causal effect on the world. But presumably you had a purpose in writing this post, no? How do you reconcile the former with the latter?

My ‘purpose’ in writing that comment derives from the biology of my human brain, all my experiences I have had, all the ideas I have been exposed to, the social context I exist in and interact with, and a degree of non-determinism. There is no special ‘purpose’ or ‘will’ in the universe that makes me do what I do.

And as for the question you will probably ask me next, I think that the question of ‘free will’ is a red herring — I do not believe that human minds are deterministic, but I also do not think there is any disembodiable metaphysical ‘will’ behind them.

Then let’s set aside the question of free will and focus on why you wrote the post. You said that your purpose in writing the comment “derives” from a number of distal causes, but that doesn’t really answer the question “what was your purpose in writing the post?”

As for what my ‘purpose’ for writing that post is, the shortest answer I can give is “I enjoy thinking and commenting on philosophical matters, and I felt I had a meaningful comment to make in that case”. However, that statement does not presuppose any greater metaphysical ‘purpose’ or ‘will’.

Was this purpose the cause of your action?

Yes, it was.

(Twenty characters)

Circling back to my original question: how do you reconcile this with your claim that purpose is epiphenomenal?

The reason this ‘purpose’ is epiphenomenal is that the concept is an abstraction upon the operation of my brain and the context in which it exists and operates.

(I should note that human brains are capable of self-reference and this very discussion we are having is an example of this.)

What does it mean to say that your purpose in writing the post is an “abstraction” upon the operation of your brain?

It means that the concept of ‘purpose’ in writing the post is an abstraction subsuming many things that have been experienced and learned, resulting in the encoding of ideas in the forms of neural connections in the brain and subsequent neural activity, which ultimately resulted in my writing the post.

To not make such abstractions would require one to speak of countless neurons, action potentials, and so on which we humans are not directly aware of but rather experience as abstract quantities such as ‘thoughts’, ‘beliefs’, ‘memories’, and so on.

OK, so when you say that your purpose was the cause of your action, are you saying that your action was caused by an abstraction, or that it was caused by what the abstraction generalizes over? Or something else?